For this discussion, we will only consider functions with
g
n
g
n
where
ℝ→ℝ
- Definition 1: Uniform Convergence
The
sequence
gn|n=1∞
n
1
g
n
converges uniformly to function
gg if for every
ε>0
ε
0
there is an integer
NN such that
n≥N
n
N
implies
|
g
n
t−gt|≤ε
g
n
t
g
t
ε
(1)
for
all
t∈ℝ
t
.
Obviously every uniformly convergent sequence is
pointwise convergent. The
difference between pointwise and uniform convergence is this:
If
g
n
g
n
converges pointwise to
gg, then for every
ε>0
ε
0
and for every
t∈ℝ
t
there is an integer
NN
depending on
εε
and tt such
that
Equation 1 holds if
n≥N
n
N
. If
g
n
g
n
converges uniformly to
gg, it is
possible for each
ε>0
ε
0
to find
one integer
NN that will do for all
t∈ℝ
t
.
∀t,t∈ℝ:
g
n
t=1n
t
t
g
n
t
1
n
Let
ε>0
ε
0
be given. Then choose
N=⌈1ε⌉
N
1
ε
. Obviously,
∀n,n≥N:|
g
n
t−0|≤ε
n
n
N
g
n
t
0
ε
for all tt. Thus,
g
n
t
g
n
t
converges uniformly to
00.
∀t,t∈ℝ:
g
n
t=tn
t
t
g
n
t
t
n
Obviously for any
ε>0
ε
0
we cannot find a single function
g
n
t
g
n
t
for which Equation 1 holds
with
gt=0
g
t
0
for all tt. Thus
g
n
g
n
is not uniformly convergent. However we do have:
g
n
t→gt
pointwise
g
n
t
g
t
pointwise
Uniform convergence always implies pointwise convergence,
but pointwise convergence does not guarantee uniform
convergence.
Rigorously prove if the following functions converge pointwise,
uniformly, or both.
-
g
n
t=sintn
g
n
t
t
n
-
g
n
t=ⅇtn
g
n
t
t
n
-
g
n
t=1ntift>00ift≤0
g
n
t
1
n
t
t
0
0
t
0
"My introduction to signal processing course at Rice University."